I have a standard term in my contract that says my client owns the work I do for him.
I have received an unusual query from a client who says he doesn’t want to own it until he has paid for it. I don’t see an advantage to changing the standard terminology. I think this is covered because if I do the work and he doesn’t pay me, he’s broken the contract and we no longer have a deal. It’s not like I can sell his web site to someone else.
I haven’t answered him yet.
I don’t think he’s trying to rip me off, I think he’s “over-thinking” it. But I’m no lawyer. Does anyone else have experience with this?